Medical Assisting Review Passing the CMA RMA, & Other Exams 5th ed By Jahangir Moini – Exam Bank

Medical Assisting Review Passing the CMA RMA, & Other Exams 5th ed By Jahangir Moini – Exam Bank

Practice Exam 2
1. Voucher checks are commonly used for
A. Payroll
B. Payment collection
C. Internal billing
D. Cycle billing

2. From which of the following is agar extracted?
A. Algae
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
E. None of these

3. When addressing an envelope, the word “confidential” should be placed
A. Two lines below the address
B. Two lines below the return address
C. One line below the address
D. One line above the city and state

4. The ledger provides up-to-date financial information pertaining to which of the following?
A. Pharmaceutical representatives
B. Insurance companies
C. Physician
D. Patients
E. Employees

5. Which of the following abbreviations is used in a prescription to indicate that a medication should be taken orally before meals?
A. PO ac
B. PO hs
C. PO qd
D. PO pc
E. PO qs

6. A hereditary disease that causes copper accumulation in various organs is called
A. Gout
B. Lyme disease
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Crohn’s disease
E. Alzheimer’s disease

7. Which of the following is the most appropriate medical record classification for a deceased patient?
A. Inactive
B. Closed
C. Active
D. Transferred
E. Released

8. A microbe that lives only in the absence of oxygen is called a(n)
A. Cilia
B. Flagella
C. Virus
D. Obligate anaerobe
E. Obligate aerobe

9. Medicare Part C involves which of the following?
A. Prescription drugs
B. Private health plans
C. Hospitalization
D. Indigent people
E. Outpatients

10. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action for the medical assistant when a patient is referred to the medical office?
A. Schedule an appointment for the patient in one week
B. Determine the urgency of the patient’s appointment
C. Discuss the case with the referring physician
D. Ask the patient for more information about his or her insurance coverage

11. Which of the following is a safety hazard in a medical office?
A. Dosimeter
B. Lead apron
C. Aneroid sphygmomanometer
D. Mercury thermometer
E. Disposable pipette

12. Antiemetics are indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. Diarrhea
B. Seizures
C. Vomiting
D. Congestion
E. Itching

13. The placement of the subject line in a letter should be in the
A. Special notations
B. Closing
C. Heading
D. Opening
E. Body

14. Which of the following is used to indicate that a patient’s medical record is stored in two locations?
A. Cross-reference guide
B. Color coding
C. Tickler file
D. Out guide
E. Subject file

15. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to remove sterile forceps from a sterile package?
A. By tip, handles up
B. By hinged joint
C. By handles, tip up
D. By handles, tip down
E. By tip, handles down

16. The process in which molecules, ions, or particles move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is known as
A. Diffusion
B. Filtration
C. Osmosis
D. Pinocytosis
E. Phagocytosis

17. Which of the following is the correct spelling for the term that means “characterized by an exaggerated reaction to an antigen or toxin”?
A. Anafilactic
B. Anaphilactic
C. Annaphylactic
D. Anaphylactic
E. Anaphylatic

18. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires that healthcare workers be tested annually for which of the following communicable disease?
A. Epidemic parotitis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rubeola
E. AIDS

19. Which of the following is an instrument that measures and records the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs?
A. Spirometer
B. Electrocardiogram
C. Tonometer
D. Sphygmomanometer
E. Spirogram

20. Which of the following actions by the medical assistant is most likely to protect the physician if a caller to the office were to take legal action?
A. Answering all calls promptly
B. Using technical terms on the phone
C. Avoiding lengthy phone conversations
D. Proper documentation of calls

21. Which of the following is a hereditary disorder of clotting factors?
A. Poikilocytosis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Hemophilia

22. In an electrocardiogram, what does the QRS complex represent?
A. Depolarization of the atria
B. Repolarization of the atria
C. Repolarization of the ventricles
D. Refractory period of atria and ventricles
E. Depolarization of the ventricles

23. The gallbladder is normally located in which of the following abdominal quadrants?
A. Left lower
B. Right lower
C. Right upper
D. Left upper

24. Which of the following is caused by an enzyme deficiency, causes abnormal lipid metabolism in the brain, and affects people of the Ashkenazi Jewish population?
A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Myelomeningocele
E. Hirschsprung’s disease

25. Nonabsorbable suture material is used for which of the following types of tissue?
A. Nerve
B. Muscle
C. Fascia
D. Skin
E. Intestine

26. Which of the following is a doctrine that holds physician employers responsible for the actions of their employees?
A. Res ipsa loquitur
B. Respondeat superior
C. Manifestation of assent
D. Locum tenens
E. Misfeasance

27. Which psychologist believed that as people age, they also go through psychosocial changes?
A. Kübler-Ross
B. Maslow
C. Erickson
D. Jung
E. Freud

28. Which of the following types of filing systems requires a cross-reference file?
A. Geographic
B. Alphabetic
C. Subject
D. Numeric

29. Practice expenses for the month of June are $8,500. Revenue for the same month is $16,180. The practice has total assets of $283,000 and liabilities of $55,000. What is the net income for the practice for the month of June?
A. $7,680
B. $24,680
C. $38,000
D. $228,000

30. The plan that covers spouses of veterans with permanent disabilities is called
A. TRICARE
B. CHAMPUS
C. Blue Cross and Blue Shield
D. Kaiser Foundation Health Plan
E. CHAMPVA

31. The central processing unit (CPU) is a type of
A. Motherboard
B. Microprocessor
C. RAM
D. ROM
E. Optical disk

32. Which of the following is an example of a medical aseptic technique?
A. Use of a disinfectant
B. Surgical scrubbing
C. Autoclaving with steam
D. Gas sterilization
E. Removing all microorganisms from instruments

33. A patient scheduled for which of the following services is most likely to need the longest appointment time?
A. Postoperative visit
B. Complete physical examination
C. Prenatal checkup
D. Annual pelvic examination
E. Initial allergy injection

34. The code for intravenous administration of chemotherapy is found in which of the following sections of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) manual?
A. Surgery
B. Medicine
C. Pathology and Laboratory
D. Evaluation and Management
E. Anesthesia

35. Which of the following information provided on a patient registration form is demographic information?
A. Name and address of referring physician
B. Effective date of insurance policy
C. Postsurgical history
D. Reason for office visit
E. Patient’s place of employment

36. Disorders that involve an apparent, abrupt, and repeated shifting from one “personality” to another are referred to as
A. Obsessive-compulsive
B. Dissociative
C. Panic anxiety
D. Personality
E. Anxiety

37. Which of the following is a breathing pattern marked by a period of apnea lasting 10 to 60 seconds, followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respiration?
A. Eupnea
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypoxia
D. Cheyne-Stokes
E. Asphyxia

38. The physician uses six packs of 5-0 sutures daily during a 5-day workweek. One box of sutures contains 32 packs. How many boxes of sutures are ordered each month?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
E. Six

39. If a fracture is at the distal end of the tibia and fibula, it is called
A. Wilson’s fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Pott’s fracture
D. Comminuted fracture
E. Simple fracture

40. Which of the following combining forms is matched correctly with its meaning?
A. Hypo- / above
B. Latero- / below
C. Antero- / back
D. Peri- / around

41. On a urinalysis reagent strip, infection is indicated by the presence of which of the following?
A. Urobilinogen
B. Leukocytes
C. Bilirubin
D. Ketones
E. Protein

42. Dry scaling and fissuring of the lips is called
A. Xerosis
B. Xanthoma
C. Keratosis
D. Erythrodermatitis
E. Cheilosis

43. Which of the following is both bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotic?
A. Mafenide
B. Clarithromycin
C. Amikacin
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Vancomycin

44. The artificial breaking of adhesions of an ankylosed joint is known as
A. arthroclasia
B. arthrodesis
C. rachischisis
D. spondylitis

45. Which of the following may result from sunburn over time?
A. Sebaceous nevus
B. Epidermal nevus
C. Kaposi’s sarcoma
D. Malignant melanoma

46. Which of the following should replace a patient’s medical record when the record is removed from the filing system?
A. Post-it note
B. Index card
C. Out guide
D. Cross-reference card
E. Divider guide

47. Which of the following is not a computer input device?
A. Trackball
B. Printer
C. Mouse
D. Keyboard
E. Scanner

48. Which of the following is an advantage of metered mail?
A. Traceable
B. Insured
C. Faster processing
D. Less expensive
E. Guaranteed delivery

49. When injecting a medication, which of the following parts of the needle allows the medication to flow from the syringe to the needle?
A. Shaft
B. Lumen
C. Bevel
D. Hilt
E. Hub

50. A pediatrician is unexpectedly delayed, and there are patients in the waiting room. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the medical assistant to take?

A. Tell the patients to leave and come back when the physician is available
B. Ignore the delay and explain it to individual patients if they ask
C. Explain the delay to the patients and estimate how long the physician will be unavailable
D. Ask the patients to wait until the physician is available to avoid rescheduling their appointments

51. Which of the following is a chest pain symptom that results from a temporary loss of oxygen to the heart muscle?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Angina pectoris
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Carotid artery bruit
E. Mitral valve regurgitation

52. What is the term for a court order that requires a witness to appear in court with a patient’s medical record?
A. Qui facit per alium
B. Subpoena duces tecum
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Respondeat superior
E. Res gestae

53. The physician orders promethazine (Phenergan) 25 mg intramuscularly for a patient with nausea. The bottle of promethazine is labeled “50 mg per ml.” How much of the drug should be administered to the patient?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 2 mL
E. 2.5 mL

54. When scheduling appointments, which of the following should be considered?
A. Demographics
B. Cancellations
C. Analyzing patient flow
D. Inactive files
E. Tracking

55. Which of the following terms best describes the awareness and insight one person has for another’s feelings and emotions?
A. Sympathy
B. Sensitivity
C. Apathy
D. Objectivity
E. Empathy

56. When a false statement is made under oath, it is referred to legally as
A. Verdict
B. Perjury
C. Libel
D. Slander
E. Fraud

57. Which of the following medical terms is spelled correctly?
A. Ostoarthritis
B. Proteinuria
C. Mylogram
D. Cholocystitis
E. Hystersalpingography

58. Retinol and carotene are referred to as which of the following vitamins?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin B

59. Which of the following types of casts are most commonly seen during microscopic examinations of urine?
A. Waxy
B. Granular
C. Hyaline
D. Cellular
E. Mixed

60. Drugs classified as which of the following have no prescriptive use?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

61. Which of the following terms describes the strength of a drug required to produce the desired effect?
A. Tolerance
B. Cumulation
C. Additive action
D. Antagonism
E. Potency

62. “Have you had this problem before?” is an example of which of the following types of questions?
A. Closed-ended
B. Leading
C. Hypothetical
D. Exploratory

63. A deceitful practice undertaken to induce someone to part with something of value is known as
A. invasion of privacy
B. libel
C. fraud
D. defamation
E. abuse

64. Office policy regarding the length of time for retaining patient files should be based on the
A. Statute of limitations
B. Number of inactive files
C. Number of active files
D. Availability of storage space
E. Frequency of the purging schedule